2024 Correct and Up-to-date CompTIA SY0-601 BrainDumps
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CompTIA SY0-601 (CompTIA Security+) Exam is a highly respected and globally recognized certification that validates the skills needed to perform core security functions and pursue an IT security career. It is designed to test the knowledge and abilities of IT professionals in identifying and mitigating security risks, ensuring the integrity of information, and implementing security measures to protect an organization's assets. CompTIA Security+ Exam certification is ideal for individuals who want to demonstrate their competence in cybersecurity and expand their career opportunities.
NEW QUESTION # 168
Drag and Drop Question
Leveraging the information supplied below, complete the CSR for the server to set up TLS (HTTPS).
- Hostnam : ws01
- Domain: comptia.org
- IPv4: 10.1.9.50
- IPV4: 10.2.10.50
- Root: home.aspx
- DNS CNAME:homesite.
INSTRUCTIONS
Drag the various data points to the correct locations within the CSR. Extension criteria belong in the left-hand column and values belong in the corresponding row in the right-hand column.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 169
Several employees return to work the day after attending an industry trade show. That same day, the security manager notices several malware alerts coming from each of the employee's workstations. The security manager investigates but finds no signs of an attack on the perimeter firewall or the NIDS. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the malware alerts?
- A. A Trojan that has passed through and executed malicious code on the hosts
- B. A fileless virus that is contained on a vCard that is attempting to execute an attack
- C. A USB flash drive that is trying to run malicious code but is being blocked by the host firewall
- D. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 170
Which of the following is the first step to take when creating an anomaly detection process?
- A. Creating an event log
- B. Selecting events
- C. Selecting logging options
- D. Building a baseline
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 171
Which of the following should a Chief Information Security Officer consider using to take advantage of industry standard guidelines?
- A. GDPR
- B. SSAE SOC 2
- C. NIST CSF
- D. PCI DSS
Answer: C
Explanation:
NIST CSF (National Institute of Standards and Technology Cybersecurity Framework) is a set of guidelines and best practices for managing cybersecurity risks. It is based on existing standards, guidelines, and practices that are widely recognized and applicable across different sectors and organizations. It provides a common language and framework for understanding, communicating, and managing cybersecurity risks. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 7, Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, Objective 1.4: Explain the techniques used in security assessments 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.1: Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts 3 https://www.nist.gov/cyberframework
NEW QUESTION # 172
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating the dangers involved in deploying a new ERP system for the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls that apply to the system, implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system. Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate the environment for this new ERP system?
- A. ISO 27002
- B. NIST Risk Management Framework
- C. CIS Critical Security Controls
- D. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) is a process for evaluating the security of a system and implementing controls to reduce potential risks associated with it. The RMF process involves categorizing the system, selecting the controls that apply to the system, implementing the controls, and then assessing the success of the controls before authorizing the system. For more information on the NIST Risk Management Framework and other security processes, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.
NEW QUESTION # 173
A security analyst is tasked with defining the "something you are" factor of the company's MFA settings.
Which of the following is BEST to use to complete the configuration?
- A. Gait analysis
- B. Vein
- C. Soft token
- D. HMAC-based, one-time password
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 174
A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution must have a two- drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator select?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 175
A company is looking to migrate some servers to the cloud to minimize its technology footprint. The company has 100 databases that are on premises. Which of the following solutions will require the LEAST management and support from the company?
- A. PaaS
- B. SaaS
- C. IaaS
- D. SDN
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 176
A security administrator needs to provide secure access to internal networks for external partners The administrator has given the PSK and other parameters to the third-party security administrator. Which of the following is being used to establish this connection?
- A. SSH
- B. SSL/TLS
- C. IPSec
- D. Kerberos
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. It uses encryption, authentication, and integrity mechanisms to protect data from unauthorized access or modification. IPSec can operate in two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. In tunnel mode, IPSec can create a virtual private network (VPN) between two endpoints, such as external partners and internal networks. To establish a VPN connection, IPSec requires a pre-shared key (PSK) or other parameters to negotiate the security association.
References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-vpn
NEW QUESTION # 177
A network engineer and a security engineer are discussing ways to monitor network operations. Which of the following is the BEST method?
- A. Utilize an agentless monitor
- B. Establish a continuous ping.
- C. Enable SNMPv3 With passwords.
- D. Disable Telnet and force SSH.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 178
An analyst has determined that a server was not patched and an external actor exfiltrated data on port 139. Which of the following sources should the analyst review to BEST ascertain how the Incident could have been prevented?
- A. The security logs
- B. The correlation of events
- C. The baseline report
- D. The vulnerability scan output
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 179
A company recently experienced an attack during which 5 main website was directed to the atack-er's web server, allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers. Which of the following should the company Implement to prevent this type of attack from occurring in the future?
- A. SSL/TLS
- B. IPSec
- C. S/MIME
- D. DNSSEC
Answer: D
Explanation:
The attack described in the question is known as a DNS hijacking attack. In this type of attack, an attacker modifies the DNS records of a domain name to redirect traffic to their own server. This allows them to intercept traffic and steal sensitive information such as user credentials.
To prevent this type of attack from occurring in the future, the company should implement C. DNSSEC.
DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions) is a security protocol that adds digital signatures to DNS records. This ensures that DNS records are not modified during transit and prevents DNS hijacking attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 180
A newly purchased corporate WAP needs to be configured in the MOST secure manner possible.
INSTRUCTIONS
Please click on the below items on the network diagram and configure them accordingly:
WAP
DHCP Server
AAA Server
Wireless Controller
LDAP Server
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 181
A major political party experienced a server breach. The hacker then publicly posted stolen internal communications concerning campaign strategies to give the opposition party an advantage. Which of the following BEST describes these threat actors?
- A. State actors
- B. Script kiddies
- C. Semi-authorized hackers
- D. Advanced persistent threats
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 182
Which of the following is a solution that can be used to stop a disgruntled employee from copying confidential data to a USB drive?
- A. AV
- B. TLS
- C. DLP
- D. IDS
Answer: C
Explanation:
DLP stands for data loss prevention, which is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help mitigate the risk of data exfiltration by disgruntled employees or external attackers by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, transfer, or upload sensitive data to a USB drive or other removable media based on predefined policies and rules.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails
https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp
NEW QUESTION # 183
During an incident response, an analyst applied rules to all inbound traffic on the border firewall and implemented ACLs on each critical server Following an investigation, the company realizes it is still vulnerable because outbound traffic is not restncted and the adversary is able lo maintain a presence in the network. In which of the following stages of the Cyber Kill Chain is the adversary currently operating?
- A. Actions on objective
- B. Reconnaissance
- C. Exploitation
- D. Command and control
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 184
A systems administrator is creating a script that would save time and prevent human error when performing account creation for a large number of end users. Which of the following would be a good use case for this task?
- A. Off-the-shelf software
- B. Policy enforcement
- C. Baseline
- D. Orchestration
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 185
A company policy requires third-party suppliers to self-report data breaches within a specific time frame.
Which of the following third-party risk management policies is the company complying with?
- A. SLA
- B. NDA
- C. EOL
- D. MOU
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
An SLA or service level agreement is a type of third-party risk management policy that defines the expectations and obligations between a service provider and a customer. An SLA typically includes metrics and standards for measuring the quality and performance of the service, as well as penalties or remedies for non-compliance. An SLA can also specify the reporting requirements for data breaches or other incidents that may affect the customer's security or privacy.
NEW QUESTION # 186
A security engineer needs to create a network segment that can be used for servers that require connections from untrusted networks. When of the following should the engineer implement?
- A. A VLAN
- B. A screened subnet
- C. A hot site
- D. An air gap
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 187
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 188
A user attempts to load a web-based application, but the expected login screen does not appear A help desk analyst troubleshoots the issue by running the following command and reviewing the output on the user's PC
The help desk analyst then runs the same command on the local PC
Which of the following BEST describes the attack that is being detected?
- A. Domain hijacking
B DNS poisoning
C MAC flooding - B. Evil twin
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
DNS poisoning, also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System (DNS) data is introduced into the DNS resolver's cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record, such as an IP address. This results in traffic being diverted to the attacker's computer (or any other malicious destination).
DNS poisoning can be performed by various methods, such as:
Intercepting and forging DNS responses from legitimate servers
Compromising DNS servers and altering their records
Exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS protocols or implementations
Sending malicious emails or links that trigger DNS queries with poisoned responses According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:
"DNS poisoning, also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System (DNS) data is introduced into the DNS resolver's cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record." References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails
https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/dns/dns-cache-poisoning/
NEW QUESTION # 189
A systems administrator needs to install the same X.509 certificate on multiple servers. Which of the following should the administrator use?
- A. A self-signed certificate
- B. An extended validation certificate
- C. Key escrow
- D. Certificate chaining
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 190
A security analyst is reviewing the output of a web server log and notices a particular account is attempting to transfer large amounts of money:
Which of the following types of attack is MOST likely being conducted?
- A. SQLi
- B. CSRF
- C. API
- D. Session replay
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 191
A security team discovered a large number of company-issued devices with non-work-related software installed. Which of the following policies would most likely contain language that would prohibit this activity?
- A. NDA
- B. BPA
- C. SLA
- D. AUP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
AUP stands for acceptable use policy, which is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using an organization's network, systems, devices, and resources. An AUP typically covers topics such as authorized and unauthorized activities, security requirements, data protection, user responsibilities, and consequences for violations. An AUP can help prevent non-work-related software installation on company-issued devices by clearly stating what types of software are allowed or prohibited, and what actions will be taken if users do not comply with the policy.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails
https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2471/acceptable-use-policy-aup
NEW QUESTION # 192
A Chief Information Officer is concerned about employees using company-issued laptops to steal data when accessing network shares. Which of the following should the company implement?
- A. EDR
- B. DLP
- C. CASB
- D. UEFI
- E. HIDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
The company should implement Data Loss Prevention (DLP) to prevent employees from stealing data.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 8
NEW QUESTION # 193
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