[2024] Pass NCLEX NCLEX-RN Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps [Q346-Q362]

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[2024] Pass NCLEX NCLEX-RN Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps

Verified NCLEX-RN dumps Q&As - NCLEX-RN dumps with Correct Answers


Get to know about the benefits of NCLEX-RN certified professional

  1. Job Security - You will be able to work in any hospital or clinic, regardless of the size.
  2. Good Salary - The average salary of certified professionals is higher than the average salary of nurses.
  3. Better Working Conditions - The benefits offered to certified professionals include retirement and insurance.
  4. Higher Demand - Certified professionals are in high demand. This is because certified professionals provide better service and care.

The National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) is a standardized test that is used to determine whether or not a nursing candidate is ready to become a licensed registered nurse (RN). NCLEX-RN exam evaluates the candidate's knowledge and skills in nursing practice, patient care, and critical thinking. The NCLEX-RN is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and is designed to assess the competency of nursing graduates in the United States and Canada.

 

NEW QUESTION # 346
A 45-year-old male client experiences a sense of depression because he has not yet achieved his life's goals.
His career has not been satisfying. He is still looking for the right job. His wife spends too much money, and his children seem to ignore him while being very selfish. He is tired of all of their attitudes and is considering buying a red Corvette convertible. While obtaining these data concerning the client's feelings about his life, the nurse is able to determine he is experiencing what psychological crisis according to Erikson's stages?

  • A. Intimacy versus isolation
  • B. Integrity versus despair
  • C. Identity versus role confusion
  • D. Generativity versus self-absorption

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) Identity versus role confusion is experienced by adolescents making the transition from childhood to adulthood as they attempt to develop a sense of identity. (B) Integrity versus despair is experienced by the elderly as they reflect on their life in an attempt to find meaning. (C) Intimacy versus isolation is experienced by young adults as they establish intimate bonds of love and friendship. (D) Generativity versus self-absorption is experienced by middle-aged adults as they fulfill life goals that involve family, career, and society. The client is experiencing this crisis.


NEW QUESTION # 347
A 29-year-old client delivered her fifth child by the Lamaze method and developed a postpartal hemorrhage in the recovery room. What are the initial symptoms of shock that she may experience?

  • A. Decreased systolic pressure, cold skin, and anuria
  • B. Rapid pulse; narrowed pulse pressure; cool, moist skin
  • C. No urinary output, tachycardia, and restlessness
  • D. Marked elevation in blood pressure, respirations, and pulse

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Early shock does not exhibit the symptom of marked elevation in blood pressure. A narrowing of the pulse pressure is indicative of early shock. (B) Anuria is a clinical finding in late shock. (C) All of these clinical findings are congruent with early shock. (D) Absence of urinary output is a clinical finding in the late phase of shock.


NEW QUESTION # 348
A 16-year-old client with anorexia nervosa is on an inpatient psychiatric unit. She has a fear of gaining weight and is refusing to eat sufficient amounts to maintain body weight for her age, height, and stature. To assist with the problem of powerlessness and plan for the client to no longer need to withhold food to feel in control, the nurse uses the following strategy:

  • A. Listen attentively and participate in in-depth discussions about food, because these actions may encourage her to eat.
  • B. Distract the client during meals to get her to eat because she must take in sufficient amounts to keep from starving.
  • C. Do frequent room checks to be sure that the client is not hiding food or throwing it away.
  • D. Establish a structured environment with routine tasks and activities. Also, serve meals at the same time each day.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Anorexia nervosa clients feel out of control. Providing a structured environment offers safety and comfort and can help them to develop internal control, thus reducing their need to control by self-starvation. (B) Distraction does not focus on the client's need for control. (C) Doing frequent room checks reinforces feelings of powerlessness and the need to continue with the dysfunctional behavior. (D) Participating in long discussions about food does not make the client want to eat, but rather this strategy allows her to indulge in her preoccupation and to continue with the dysfunctional behavior.


NEW QUESTION # 349
A 19-year-old male client arrived via ambulance to the emergency room following a motorcycle accident. He is comatose. His face has evidence of dried blood. On assessment, the nurse notes an obvious injury to his left eye. The preferred positioning for a client with an obvious eye injury is:

  • A. Sitting with head support
  • B. Reclining to control bleeding
  • C. Any position in which the client is comfortable
  • D. Side-lying, either left or right

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) A reclining position can cause a penetrating object to advance further into the eye. (B) Prevention of further injury is the priority, not comfort. (C) A side-lying position may increase intraocular and intracranial pressure if an accompanying head injury is suspected. (D) A sitting position with the head supported will prevent further injury while allowing injury care to take place.


NEW QUESTION # 350
The physician of an alcoholic client places him on a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet. When choosing his menu, the client's best choice from the items below would be:

  • A. Waffles with butter and honey, orange juice
  • B. Liver and onions, macaroni and cheese, tea with sugar
  • C. Cheese omelette with ham and mushrooms, milk
  • D. Baked chicken, baked potato with bacon bits, milk

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A, B, D) These foods are high in protein, which needs to be restricted. (C) Serum ammonia levels can be decreased by restricting dietary protein intake. Waffles, honey, and orange juice are high in carbohydrate and low or completely lacking in protein. Butter, a concentrated fat, will provide extra calories.


NEW QUESTION # 351
Before giving methergine postpartum, the nurse should assess the client for:

  • A. Flushing
  • B. Afterpains
  • C. Elevated blood pressure
  • D. Decreased amount of lochial flow

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Methergine is given to contract the uterus and to control postpartal hemorrhage; therefore, lochial flow should decrease. (B) Methergine may elevate the blood pressure. A client with an elevated blood pressure should not receive methergine, but she could be given oxytocin if necessary. (C) Flushing is not a side effect of methergine. (D) Afterpains are increased with methergine usage. The client should be informed that this is a normal response.


NEW QUESTION # 352
A 30-year-old client is exhibiting auditory hallucinations. In working with this client, the nurse would be most effective if the nurse:

  • A. Encourages the client to discuss the voices
  • B. Attempts to direct the client's attention to the here and now
  • C. Gives the medication as necessary for the acting-out behavior
  • D. Exhibits sincere interest in the delusional voices

Answer: B

Explanation:
(A) This answer is incorrect. Encouraging discussion of the voices will reinforce the delusion. (B) This answer is correct. The nurse should appropriately present reality. (C) This answer is incorrect. Showing interest would reinforce the delusional system. (D) This answer is incorrect. The statement only indicates that the client is hearing voices. It does not state that the client is acting out.


NEW QUESTION # 353
The nurse instructs a pregnant client (G2P1) to rest in a side-lying position and avoid lying flat on her back.
The nurse explains that this is to avoid "vena caval syndrome," a condition which:

  • A. May require medication if positioning does not help
  • B. Results when blood flow from the extremities is blocked or slowed
  • C. Occurs when blood pressure increases sharply with changes in position
  • D. Is seen mainly in first pregnancies

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Blood pressure changes are predominantly due to pressure of the gravid uterus. (B) Pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava decreases blood return from lower extremities. (C) Inferior vena cava syndrome is experienced in the latter months of pregnancy regardless of parity. (D) There are no medications useful in the treatment of interior vena cava syndrome; alleviating pressure by position changes is effective.


NEW QUESTION # 354
A 27-year-old primigravida stated that she got up from the chair to fix dinner and bright red blood was running down her legs. She denies any pain previously or currently. The client is very concerned about whether her baby will be all right. Her vital signs include P 120 bpm, respirations 26 breaths/min, BP 104/58 mm Hg, temperature 98.2_F, and fetal heart rate 146 bpm. Laboratory findings revealed hemoglobin 9.0 g/dL, hematocrit 26%, and coagulation studies within normal range. On admission, the peripad she wore was noted to be half saturated with bright red blood. A medical diagnosis of placenta previa is made. The priority nursing diagnosis for this client would be:

  • A. Potential for fluid volume excess related to fluid resuscitation
  • B. Decreased cardiac output related to excessive bleeding
  • C. Alteration in parenting related to potential fetal injury
  • D. Anxiety related to threat to self

Answer: B

Explanation:
(A) Based on the client's history, presence of bright red vaginal bleeding, and hemoglobin value on admission, the priority nursing diagnosis would be decreased cardiac output related to excessive bleeding. (B) This nursing diagnosis is a potential problem that does not exist at the present time, and therefore is not the priority problem. (C) The client's expressed anxiety is for her child. The fetus will remain physiologically safe if the decreased cardiac output is resolved. (D) Initial spontaneous bleeding with placenta previa is rarely life threatening to the mother or the fetus. Delivery of the fetus will be postponed until fetal maturity is achieved and survival is likely.


NEW QUESTION # 355
A 55-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. His physician orders a low-sodium diet for him. When he asks, "What does salt have to do with high blood pressure?'' the nurse's initial response would be:

  • A. "The reason is not known why hypertension is associated with a high-salt diet."
  • B. "Salt affects your blood vessels and causes your blood pressure to be high."
  • C. "Large amounts of salt in your diet can cause you to retain fluid, which increases your blood pressure."
  • D. "Salt is needed to maintain blood pressure, but too much causes hypertension."

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This response is untrue. (B) Decreasing salt intake reduces fluid retention and decreases blood pressure. (C) Salt does not have an effect on the blood vessels themselves, but on fluid retention, which accompanies salt intake. (D) This response is untrue.


NEW QUESTION # 356
A newborn has been delivered with a meningomyelocele. The nursery nurse should position the newborn:

  • A. Side lying
  • B. Supine
  • C. Prone
  • D. Semi-Fowler

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) The prone position reduces pressure and tension on the sac. Primary nursing goals are to prevent trauma and infection of the sac. (B) The supine position exerts pressure on the sac. (C) Newborns usually cannot maintain side-lying position. (D) The semi-Fowler position exerts pressure on the sac.


NEW QUESTION # 357
A male client seeks counseling after his wife of 19 years threatened to divorce him. For most of their marriage, he has physically and verbally abused her. When asked about his behavior in the process of the nursing assessment, the client states, "I was mean to my wife because she insists on cooking meals and wearing clothes that I do not like." This defense mechanism is an example of:

  • A. Rationalization
  • B. Repression
  • C. Reaction formation
  • D. Regression

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) Repression is blocking a desire from conscious expression. The client is conscious of his desires. (B) Regression is returning to an earlier form of expression, which is not demonstrated here. (C) Reaction formation is acting out the opposite of true feelings. The client felt anger concerning his wife's cooking and acted out his feelings. (D) Rationalization is unconsciously falsifying an experience by giving a "rational" explanation. The client is attempting to justify his behavior by giving an explanation.


NEW QUESTION # 358
Which one of the following is considered a reliable indicator for assessing the adequacy of fluid resuscitation in a 3-year-old child who suffered partial- and fullthickness burns to 25% of her body?

  • A. Bulging fontanelle
  • B. Edema
  • C. Urine output
  • D. Hypertension

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Urinary output is a reliable indicator of renal perfusion, which in turn indicates that fluid resuscitation is adequate. IV fluids are adjusted based on the urinary output of the child during fluid resuscitation. (B) Edema is an indication of increased capillary permeability following a burn injury. (C) Hypertension is an indicator of fluid volume excess. (D) Fontanelles close by 18 months of age.


NEW QUESTION # 359
A client in active labor asks the nurse for coaching with her breathing during contractions. The client has attended Lamaze birth preparation classes. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?

  • A. "If a woman in labor listens to her body and takes rapid, deep breaths, she will be able to deal with her contractions quite well."
  • B. "Keep breathing with your abdominal muscles as long as you can."
  • C. "Find a comfortable position before you start a contraction. Once the contraction has started, take slow breaths using your abdominal muscles."
  • D. "Make sure you take a deep cleansing breath as the contractions start, focus on an object, and breathe about 16-20 times a minute with shallow chest breaths."

Answer: D

Explanation:
(A) Lamaze childbirth preparation teaches the use of chest, not abdominal, breathing. (B) In Lamaze preparation, every patterned breath is preceded by a cleansing breath; as labor progresses, shallow, paced breathing is found to be effective. (C) It is important to assume a comfortable position in labor, but the Lamazeprepared laboring woman is taught to breathe with her chest, not abdominal, muscles. (D) When deep chest breathing patterns are used in Lamaze preparation, they are slowly paced at a rate of 6-9 breaths/min.


NEW QUESTION # 360
A physician's order reads: 0.25 normal saline at 50 mL/hr until discontinued. The nurse is using a microdrip tubing set. How many drops per minute should the nurse administer?

  • A. 50 gtt/min
  • B. 1 gtt/min
  • C. 5 gtt/min
  • D. 100 gtt/min

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) This answer is a miscalculation. (B) This answer is a miscalculation. (C) 50 gtt/min. (D) This answer is a miscalculation.


NEW QUESTION # 361
A client presented herself to the mental health center, describing the following symptoms: a weight loss of 20 lb in the past 2 months, difficulty concentrating, repeated absences from work due to "fatigue," and not wanting to get dressed in the morning. She leaves her recorded message on her telephone and has lost interest in answering the phone or doorbell. The nurse's assessment of her behavior would most likely be:

  • A. Deep depression
  • B. Severe anxiety
  • C. Severe depression
  • D. Psychotic depression

Answer: C

Explanation:
(A) A client in deep depression would have been brought to the mental health center and would not be physically able to seek help for herself. (B) She is not manifesting psychotic symptoms in her behaviors. (C) The client's symptoms are more indicative of depression than anxiety. (D) Although the client was able to bring herself to the mental health center, the extent of her weight loss and the interference of symptoms with activities of daily living indicate that she is severely depressed.


NEW QUESTION # 362
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