Get Started JN0-480 Exam [2024] Dumps Juniper PDF Questions [Q38-Q59]

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Get Started: JN0-480 Exam [2024] Dumps Juniper PDF Questions

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NEW QUESTION # 38
You use Juniper Apstra to enable a new VXLAN virtual network.
Which two components would be automatically derived in this situation? (Choose two.)

  • A. VXLAN VNI
  • B. VLAN-ID
  • C. Route Zone
  • D. IP subnet

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, a VXLAN virtual network is a collection of Layer 2 forwarding domains that span multiple racks in a fabric. A VXLAN virtual network requires a name and a VXLAN network identifier (VNI), which is a 24-bit number that identifies the virtual network. The VNI can be either explicitly assigned or auto-assigned from a resource pool. A VXLAN virtual network can also have Layer 3 connectivity, which enables routing between different VNIs within a routing zone. A routing zone is an L3 domain that isolates the IP traffic of different tenants. A routing zone can have one or more VNIs associated with it. To enable Layer 3 connectivity, a VXLAN virtual network needs an IP subnet, which is a range of IP addresses that can be assigned to the hosts in the virtual network. The IP subnet can be either explicitly assigned or auto-assigned from a resource pool. Therefore, the correct answer is A and C. IP subnet and VXLAN VNI are two components that would be automatically derived when enabling a new VXLAN virtual network using Juniper Apstra. References: Virtual Networks | Apstra 4.1 | Juniper Networks


NEW QUESTION # 39
What is the purpose of using a routing zone inside Juniper Apstra software?

  • A. A routing zone is used to enable the communication between two VNIs within a VRF.
  • B. A routing zone is used to enable L4-L7 inspection inside the fabric.
  • C. A routing zone defined at the Apstra manager level requires firewalls to be deployed.
  • D. A routing zone is defined to secure the routing protocols.

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, a routing zone is an L3 domain, the unit of tenancy in multi-tenant networks. You create routing zones for tenants to isolate their IP traffic from one another, thus enabling tenants to re-use IP subnets. In addition to being in its own VRF, each routing zone can be assigned its own DHCP relay server and external system connections. You can create one or more virtual networks within a routing zone, which means a tenant can stretch its L2 applications across multiple racks within its routing zone. For virtual networks with Layer 3 SVI, the SVI is associated with a Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) instance for each routing zone isolating the virtual network SVI from other virtual network SVIs in other routing zones. Therefore, the correct answer is D. A routing zone is used to enable the communication between two VNIs within a VRF. A routing zone is not used for L4-L7 inspection, securing routing protocols, or requiring firewalls. Those are not the purposes of a routing zone in Juniper Apstra software. References: Routing Zones


NEW QUESTION # 40
IBA probes analyze telemetry data from specified devices within a blueprint. Which component Identities devices that supply data tor a specific probe?

  • A. search engine
  • B. processor
  • C. graph query
  • D. data selector

Answer: C

Explanation:
A graph query is a component that identifies devices that supply data for a specific probe. A graph query is an expression that matches nodes in the Apstra graph database based on their attributes, such as device name, role, type, or tag. A graph query can be used to select the source devices for the input processors of a probe, as well as to filter the data by device attributes in the subsequent processors of a probe12. References:
* Probes
* Apstra IBA Getting Started Tutorial


NEW QUESTION # 41
In Juniper Apstra. which statement is correct?

  • A. VMware anomaly detection is on by default.
  • B. VMware anomaly detection requires a VMware hypervisor with exports enabled.
  • C. VMware anomaly detection requires an Apstra server running on VMware.
  • D. VMware anomaly detection requires a vCenter server configured under External Systems

Answer: D

Explanation:
VMware anomaly detection is a feature of Apstra that provides visibility and validation of the virtual network settings and the physical network settings in a VMware vSphere environment. To enable this feature, Apstra requires a connection to a vCenter server that manages the ESX/ESXi hosts and the VMs connected to the Apstra-managed leaf switches. The vCenter server must be configured under External Systems in the Apstra web interface, and the vCenter integration must be staged and committed in the blueprint. This allows Apstra to collect information about VMs, ESX/ESXi hosts, port groups, and VDS, and to flag any inconsistencies or mismatches that might affect VM connectivity. The other options are incorrect because:
* VMware anomaly detection is not on by default. It must be enabled by configuring a vCenter server under External Systems and adding a virtual infra to the blueprint.
* VMware anomaly detection does not require a VMware hypervisor with exports enabled. It only requires LLDP transmit to be enabled on the VMware distributed virtual switch to associate host interfaces with leaf interfaces.
* VMware anomaly detection does not require an Apstra server running on VMware. It can run on any supported platform, such as Linux, Windows, or Docker. References:
* VMware vCenter/vSphere Virtual Infra
* Anomalies (Service)
* A Better Experience: VMware + Juniper Apstra


NEW QUESTION # 42
Which fabric type should be chosen in a template to create a five-stage Clos?

  • A. rack-based
  • B. circuit switched
  • C. collapsed
  • D. pod-based

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 43
Exhibit.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?

  • A. The red-striped primitives indicate that they are incompatible with the connectivity template design.
  • B. The red-striped primitives indicate that further configuration is required.
  • C. The gray-solid primitives indicate further configuration is requited.
  • D. The gray-solid primitives indicate that they ate incompatible with the connectivity template design.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A connectivity template is a set of configuration parameters that can be applied to a device or a group of devices in a blueprint. A blueprint is a logical representation of the network design and intent. A primitive is a basic unit of configuration that can be added to a connectivity template. A primitive can be a link, a peering, a policy, or a service. In the exhibit, the red-striped primitives indicate that further configuration is required for them to be compatible with the connectivity template design. The red stripes mean that the primitive is incomplete or invalid, and it needs to be edited or deleted. For example, the IP Link primitive needs to have the interface name and IP address specified for each end of the link. The other options are incorrect because:
* A. The gray-solid primitives indicate further configuration is required is wrong because the gray-solid primitives indicate that they are compatible with the connectivity template design. The gray color means that the primitive is valid and complete, and it does not need any further configuration.
* B. The gray-solid primitives indicate that they are incompatible with the connectivity template design is wrong because the gray-solid primitives indicate that they are compatible with the connectivity template design, as explained above.
* C. The red-striped primitives indicate that they are incompatible with the connectivity template design is wrong because the red-striped primitives indicate that further configuration is required, not that they are incompatible. The red stripes mean that the primitive is incomplete or invalid, but it can be fixed by editing or deleting it. References:
* Connectivity Templates
* Data Center Automation Using Juniper Apstra
* Config Rendering in Juniper Apstra


NEW QUESTION # 44
Exhibit.

Referring to the exhibit, which role does Device A serve in an IP fabric?

  • A. super spine
  • B. leaf
  • C. spine
  • D. server

Answer: C

Explanation:
Device A serves as a spine in an IP fabric. An IP fabric is a network architecture that uses a spine-leaf topology to provide high performance, scalability, and reliability for data center networks. A spine-leaf topology consists of two layers of devices: spine devices and leaf devices. Spine devices are the core devices that interconnect all the leaf devices using equal-cost multipath (ECMP) routing. Leaf devices are the edge devices that connect to the servers, storage, or other network devices. In the exhibit, Device A is connected to four leaf devices using multiple links, which indicates that it is a spine device. The other options are incorrect because:
* A. leaf is wrong because a leaf device is an edge device that connects to the servers, storage, or other network devices. In the exhibit, Device A is not connected to any servers, storage, or other network devices, but only to four leaf devices, which indicates that it is not a leaf device.
* C. super spine is wrong because a super spine device is a higher-level device that interconnects multiple spine devices in a large-scale IP fabric. A super spine device is typically used when the number of leaf devices exceeds the port density of a single spine device. In the exhibit, Device A is not connected to any other spine devices, but only to four leaf devices, which indicates that it is not a super spine device.
* D. server is wrong because a server device is a compute or storage device that connects to a leaf device in an IP fabric. A server device is typically the end host that provides or consumes data in the network.
In the exhibit, Device A is not connected to any leaf devices, but only to four leaf devices, which indicates that it is not a server device. References:
* IP Fabric Underlay Network Design and Implementation
* IP Fabric Overview
* IP Fabric Architecture


NEW QUESTION # 45
Juniper Apstra has indicated an anomaly with respect to cabling.
What are two ways to remediate the issue? (Choose two.)

  • A. Set the invalid ports to a disabled state.
  • B. Have Apstra autoremediate the cabling map using LLDP.
  • C. Redeploy the errant device.
  • D. Manually edit the cabling map.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
A cabling anomaly is an issue that occurs when the physical connections between the devices in the data center fabric do not match the expected connections based on the Apstra Reference Design. A cabling anomaly can cause problems such as incorrect routing, suboptimal traffic flow, or device isolation. To remediate the issue, you can use one or both of the following methods:
* Manually edit the cabling map. This allows you to override the Apstra-generated cabling and specify the correct connections between the devices. You can use the Apstra UI or the Apstra CLI to edit the cabling map and apply the changes to the fabric12.
* Have Apstra autoremediate the cabling map using LLDP. This allows Apstra to collect LLDP data from the devices and use it to update the cabling map automatically. LLDP is a protocol that allows devices to exchange information about their identity, capabilities, and neighbors. Apstra can use the LLDP data to detect and correct any cabling errors in the fabric34. References:
* Edit Cabling Map (Datacenter)
* Import / Export Cabling Map (Datacenter)
* LLDP Overview
* Anomalies (Service)


NEW QUESTION # 46
Exhibit.

You connect two single-homed servers using Juniper Apstra as shown in the exhibit. You are using the ERB design blueprint with two virtual networks in a common routing zone.
In this scenario, which two types of VXLAN tunnels will be automatically created by the EVPN control plane? (Choose two.)

  • A. EVPN signaled route Type-2 VXLAN tunnels
  • B. EVPN signaled route Type-6 VXLAN tunnels
  • C. EVPN signaled route Type-8 VXLAN tunnels
  • D. EVPN signaled route Type-3 VXLAN tunnels

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, EVPN route Type-3 is used to advertise the IP address of the VTEP and the VNIs that it supports. This allows the VTEPs to discover each other and form VXLAN tunnels for the VNIs that they have in common. EVPN route Type-2 is used to advertise the MAC and IP addresses of the hosts connected to the VTEPs. This allows the VTEPs to learn the MAC-to-IP bindings and the MAC-to-VTEP mappings for the hosts in the same VNI. Therefore, these two types of VXLAN tunnels will be automatically created by the EVPN control plane when using Juniper Apstra with the ERB design blueprint and two virtual networks in a common routing zone. References: Example: Configure an EVPN-VXLAN Centrally-Routed Bridging Fabric


NEW QUESTION # 47
Exhibit.

You are working to build an ESI-LAG for a multihomed server. The ESI-LAG is not coming up as multihomed.
Referring to the exhibit, what are two solutions to this problem? (Choose two.)

  • A. The gateway IP addresses on both devices must be different.
  • B. The loopback IP addresses on both devices must be the same.
  • C. The ESI ID on both devices must be the same.
  • D. The LACP system ID on both devices must be the same.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, an ESI-LAG is a link aggregation group (LAG) that spans two or more devices and is identified by an Ethernet segment identifier (ESI). An ESI-LAG provides redundancy and load balancing for a multihomed server in an EVPN-VXLAN network. To configure an ESI-LAG, you need to ensure that the following requirements are met:
* The LACP system ID on both devices must be the same. This ensures that the LACP protocol can negotiate the LAG parameters and form a single logical interface for the server.
* The ESI ID on both devices must be the same. This ensures that the EVPN control plane can advertise the ESI-LAG as a single Ethernet segment and synchronize the MAC and IP addresses of the server across the devices.
* The VLAN ID and VNI on both devices must be the same. This ensures that the server can communicate with other hosts in the same virtual network and that the VXLAN encapsulation and decapsulation can work properly.
In the exhibit, the LACP system ID and the ESI ID on both devices are different, which prevents the ESI-LAG from coming up as multihomed. Therefore, the correct answer is B and D. The LACP system ID on both devices must be the same and the ESI ID on both devices must be the same. References: ESI-LAG Made Easier with EZ-LAG, Example: Configuring an ESI on a Logical Interface With EVPN-MPLS Multihoming, Introduction to EVPN LAG Multihoming


NEW QUESTION # 48
Multilenancy for applications is achieved by creating virtual networks (VNs) within which construct?

  • A. routing zone
  • B. security policy
  • C. routing table
  • D. connectivity template

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, a routing zone is an L3 domain, the unit of tenancy in multi-tenant networks. You create routing zones for tenants to isolate their IP traffic from one another, thus enabling tenants to re-use IP subnets. In addition to being in its own VRF, each routing zone can be assigned its own DHCP relay server and external system connections. You can create one or more virtual networks within a routing zone, which means a tenant can stretch its L2 applications across multiple racks within its routing zone. Therefore, the correct answer is D. routing zone. A routing zone is the construct within which you create virtual networks to achieve multitenancy for applications. References: Routing Zones


NEW QUESTION # 49
What is the purpose of an interface map in Juniper Apstra?

  • A. An interface map specifies a connection between the interfaces of two devices.
  • B. An interface map specifies the connections between racks in a template.
  • C. An interface map associates a logical device with a device profile.
  • D. An interface map specifies the number of ports and the port speeds of a logical device

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, an interface map is a configuration template that maps interfaces between logical devices and physical hardware devices (represented with device profiles) while adhering to vendor specifications. An interface map specifies a connection between the interfaces of two devices, such as a leaf and a spine, a leaf and a server, or a leaf and an external gateway. An interface map can also specify port transformations, such as breaking out a 40 GbE port into four 10 GbE ports, or disabling unused ports. An interface map can be used to achieve the intended network configuration rendering and to enable features such as LAG, ESI-LAG, or MLAG. Therefore, the correct answer is B. An interface map specifies a connection between the interfaces of two devices. References: Interface Maps (Datacenter Design)


NEW QUESTION # 50
What does EVPN use lo identity which remote leaf device advertised the EVPN route?

  • A. a route target value
  • B. a route distinguisher value
  • C. a VRF target value
  • D. a community tag

Answer: B

Explanation:
EVPN uses a route distinguisher (RD) value to identify which remote leaf device advertised the EVPN route.
An RD is a 64-bit value that is prepended to the EVPN NLRI to create a unique VPNv4 or VPNv6 prefix. The RD value is usually derived from the IP address of the PE that originates the EVPN route. By comparing the RD values of different EVPN routes, a PE can determine which remote PE advertised the route and which VRF the route belongs to. The other options are incorrect because:
* B. a community tag is wrong because a community tag is an optional transitive BGP attribute that can be used to group destinations that share some common properties. A community tag does not identify the source of the EVPN route.
* C. a route target value is wrong because a route target (RT) value is an extended BGP community that is used to control the import and export of EVPN routes between VRFs. An RT value does not identify the source of the EVPN route.
* D. a VRF target value is wrong because there is no such thing as a VRF target value in EVPN. A VRF is a virtual routing and forwarding instance that isolates the IP traffic of different VPNs on a PE. A VRF does not have a target value associated with it. References:
* EVPN Fundamentals
* RFC 9136 - IP Prefix Advertisement in Ethernet VPN (EVPN)
* EVPN Type-5 Routes: IP Prefix Advertisement
* Understanding EVPN Pure Type 5 Routes


NEW QUESTION # 51
Which statement is true when onboarding a Juniper Networks device using a Juniper Apstra ZTP server?

  • A. The Hostname will be the serial-number of the device.
  • B. The State can be set In the ztp.Json file on the ZTP server.
  • C. The Device Key lo be used can be set In the dhcpd.conf file on the ZTP server.
  • D. The Management IP address cannot be predetermined.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The ztp.Json file on the Apstra ZTP server contains the configuration parameters for each device that is onboarded using ZTP. One of the parameters is the State, which can be one of the following values: init, ready, in_progress, done, error, or disabled. The State indicates the current status of the device in the ZTP process. For example, if the State is ready, it means that the device is ready to be onboarded by the Apstra ZTP server. If the State is done, it means that the device has completed the ZTP process and is managed by the Apstra server. The State can be manually set or changed in the ztp.Json file to control the behavior of the device during ZTP. For more information, see Apstra ZTP Configuration File. References:
* Apstra ZTP Configuration File
* Apstra ZTP Introduction
* Configure Apstra ZTP


NEW QUESTION # 52
Which statement about Juniper Apstra role-based access control is correct?

  • A. The user role can create roles.
  • B. The viewer role is predefined and can be deleted.
  • C. The administrator role can see all permissions.
  • D. The administrator role is the only predefined role.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Juniper Apstra role-based access control (RBAC) is a feature that allows you to specify access permissions for different users based on their roles. RBAC servers are remote network servers that authenticate and authorize network access based on roles assigned to individual users within an enterprise1. Juniper Apstra has four predefined user roles: administrator, device_ztp, user, and viewer2. The administrator role is the most powerful role, and it can see all permissions and perform all actions in the Apstra software application. The administrator role can also create, clone, edit, and delete user roles, except for the four predefined user roles, which cannot be modified2. Therefore, the statement that the administrator role can see all permissions is correct.
The following three statements are incorrect in this scenario:
* The viewer role is predefined and can be deleted. This is not true, because the viewer role is one of the four predefined user roles, and it cannot be deleted. The viewer role is the most restricted role, and it can only view the network information and configuration, but not make any changes2.
* The user role can create roles. This is not true, because the user role is one of the four predefined user roles, and it cannot create roles. The user role can perform most of the network configuration and management tasks, but it cannot access the platform settings or the user management features2.
* The administrator role is the only predefined role. This is not true, because there are four predefined user roles, not just one. The other three predefined user roles are device_ztp, user, and viewer2.
References:
* Providers - Apstra 3.3.0 documentation
* User/Role Management (Platform)


NEW QUESTION # 53
InJuniper Apstra. which three modes are available fordevices? (Choose three.)

  • A. Deploy
  • B. Active
  • C. Ready
  • D. Stopped
  • E. Drain

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:
Juniper Apstra supports three deploy modes for devices: Deploy, Drain, and Ready. These modes determine the configuration and state of the devices in the data center fabric12.
* Deploy: This mode applies the full Apstra-rendered configuration to the device, according to the Apstra Reference Design. The device state becomes IS-ACTIVE and the device is ready to carry traffic in the fabric12.
* Drain: This mode adds a "drain" configuration to the device, which prevents any new traffic from entering the device. The device state becomes IS-READY and the device is prepared for maintenance or decommissioning12.
* Ready: This mode removes the Apstra-rendered configuration from the device, leaving only the basic configuration such as device hostname, interface descriptions, and port speed/breakout. The device state becomes IS-READY and the device is not part of the fabric12. References:
* Device Configuration Lifecycle
* Set Deploy Mode (Datacenter)


NEW QUESTION # 54
Which statement is correct about making changes to a predefined device profile in Juniper Apstra?

  • A. Changing the predefined device profile will also affect deployed devices that use the same profile.
  • B. You must reboot the Apstra server after changes are made to a predefined device profile before they will become active.
  • C. The processor load on the Apstra server will be negatively impacted when changes are made to a predefined device profile.
  • D. The changes you make to a predefined device profile will be discarded and overwritten when upgrading the Apstra server version.

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, a predefined device profile is a configuration template that is shipped with Apstra software and supports most qualified Juniper devices. A predefined device profile cannot be changed, since any changes would be discarded and overwritten when you upgrade the Apstra server version. If you want to customize a predefined device profile, you can clone and edit it instead. Therefore, the correct answer is A. The changes you make to a predefined device profile will be discarded and overwritten when upgrading the Apstra server version. References: Edit Device Profile | Apstra 4.2 | Juniper Networks


NEW QUESTION # 55
Exhibit.

Referring to the exhibit, what needs to change in the IP fabric to make it a valid IP fabric?

  • A. The IP fabric connections must be increased to a speed greater than 10 Gbps.
  • B. The IP fabric must consist of only one device model throughout the fabric.
  • C. The connection between the two spine nodes must be increased to 40 Gbps.
  • D. The connection between the two spine nodes must be removed.

Answer: D

Explanation:
To make the IP fabric a valid IP fabric, the connection between the two spine nodes must be removed. This is because an IP fabric is a network topology that uses a spine-leaf architecture, where the spine devices are only connected to the leaf devices, and the leaf devices are only connected to the spine devices. This creates a non-blocking, high-performance, and scalable network that supports Layer 3 routing protocols such as BGP or OSPF. The connection between the two spine nodes in the exhibit violates the spine-leaf design principle and introduces unnecessary complexity and potential loops in the network. The other options are incorrect because:
* A. The IP fabric must consist of only one device model throughout the fabric is wrong because an IP fabric can support different device models as long as they are compatible and interoperable. The exhibit shows two different models of QFX switches, which are both supported by Juniper Networks for IP fabric deployments.
* B. The connection between the two spine nodes must be increased to 40 Gbps is wrong because increasing the speed of the connection does not make the IP fabric valid. The connection between the two spine nodes should be removed, as explained above.
* C. The IP fabric connections must be increased to a speed greater than 10 Gbps is wrong because the speed of the connections does not affect the validity of theIP fabric. The IP fabric can use any speed that meets the bandwidth and performance requirements of the network. 10 Gbps is a common speed for IP fabric connections, but higher or lower speeds can also be used depending on the network design and devices. References:
* IP Fabric Underlay Network Design and Implementation
* IP Fabric Overview
* IP Fabric: Automated Network Assurance Platform


NEW QUESTION # 56
A member of your organization made changes to a predefined interface map using Juniper Apstra.
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)

  • A. Any changes made to predefined interface maps are discarded when Apstra is upgraded.
  • B. Changes to interface maps in the global catalog do not affect interface maps that have already been imported into blueprint catalogs
  • C. Changes made to predefined interface maps will not have an impact on the Apstra software.
  • D. Changes to interface maps in the global catalog will raise anomalies that may need to be addressed at the next commit.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, an interface map is a configuration template that maps interfaces between logical devices and physical hardware devices (represented with device profiles) while adhering to vendor specifications. An interface map can be either predefined or custom. A predefined interface map is one that ships with Apstra software and supports most qualified Juniper devices. A custom interface map is one that is created by the user to meet specific requirements. An interface map can be stored in either the global catalog or the blueprint catalog. The global catalog contains all the interface maps that are available for use in any blueprint. The blueprint catalog contains the interface maps that are imported from the global catalog and used in a specific blueprint.
When a member of your organization makes changes to a predefined interface map, the following statements are correct:
* Changes to interface maps in the global catalog do not affect interface maps that have already been imported into blueprint catalogs. This means that the existing blueprints that use the original version of the interface map will not be impacted by the changes. However, if you want to use the updated version of the interface map in a new or existing blueprint, you need to import it again from the global catalog.
* Any changes made to predefined interface maps are discarded when Apstra is upgraded. This means that the changes will not be preserved across different versions of Apstra software. If you want to retain a customized interface map through Apstra upgrades, you need to clone the predefined interface map, give it a unique name, and customize it instead of changing the predefined one directly.
Therefore, the correct answer is A and B. Changes to interface maps in the global catalog do not affect interface maps that have already been imported into blueprint catalogs and any changes made to predefined interface maps are discarded when Apstra is upgraded. References: Edit Interface Map | Apstra 4.2 | Juniper Networks


NEW QUESTION # 57
You are installing a Juniper Apstra server in your data center. You have multiple users that will be expected to configure, manage, and carry out operational tasks in your data center. You have decided to implement remote user authentication for the role-based access control of your Apstra server.
In this scenario, which three methods are supported? (Choose three.)

  • A. TACACS+
  • B. SAML
  • C. RADIUS
  • D. Auth0
  • E. LDAP

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:
To implement remote user authentication for the role-based access control of your Apstra server, you can use one of the following methods: TACACS+, LDAP, or RADIUS. These are the protocols that Juniper Apstra supports to authenticate and authorize users based on roles assigned to individual users within an enterprise.
You can configure the Apstra server to use one or more of these protocols as the authentication sources and specify the order of preference. You can also configure the Apstra server to use local user accounts as a fallback option if the remote authentication fails. The other options are incorrect because:
* D. SAML is wrong because SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is not a supported protocol for remote user authentication for the role-based access control of your Apstra server. SAML is an XML-based standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between different parties, such as identity providers and service providers. SAML is commonly used for web-based single sign-on (SSO) scenarios, but it is not compatible with the Apstra server.
* E. Auth0 is wrong because Auth0 is not a protocol, but a service that provides authentication and authorization solutions for web and mobile applications. Auth0 is a platform that supports various protocols and standards, such as OAuth, OpenID Connect, SAML, and JWT. Auth0 is not a supported service for remote user authentication for the role-based access control of your Apstra server.
References:
* User Authentication Overview
* [Juniper Apstra] Authentication and Authorization Debugging1
* Authenticate User (API)
* Configure Apstra Server


NEW QUESTION # 58
You have designed your fabric in Juniper Apstra prior to deploying the network devices.
Which Apstra element in the Staged tab would be used to assist the team that is installing and cabling the devices?

  • A. Links table
  • B. Virtual Networks table
  • C. Managed Devices list
  • D. Connectivity Templates

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Links table in the Staged tab shows the physical connections between the devices in the fabric. It provides information such as the source and destination device names, hostnames, serial numbers, roles, interfaces, and link status. The Links table can be used to assist the team that is installing and cabling the devices by verifying that the devices are connected correctly and that the links are operational. The Links table can also be used to troubleshoot any connectivity issues that may arise during the installation process. For more information, see Links (Staged). References:
* Links (Staged)
* Topology (Staged)
* Staged


NEW QUESTION # 59
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