Give Push to your Success with CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Questions
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CompTIA SK0-005 exam is a certification exam designed to assess a candidate's knowledge and expertise in managing and maintaining server hardware and software. SK0-005 exam is targeted towards IT professionals who are responsible for installing, configuring, and managing servers in various organizations. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification is recognized globally and can be a valuable asset for IT professionals seeking to advance their careers in the field of server administration.
CompTIA Server+ certification is ideal for IT professionals who work with server technology, including server administrators, network administrators, system administrators, and IT technicians. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification is also suitable for those who are interested in pursuing careers in server administration. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification provides a solid foundation of knowledge and skills that can be used to improve job prospects and advance in the IT industry.
NEW QUESTION # 104
A server administrator has received tickets from users who report the system runs very slowly and various unrelated messages pop up when they try to access an internet-facing web application using default ports. The administrator performs a scan to check for open ports and reviews the following report:
Starting Nmap 7.70 https://nmap.org) at 2019-09-19 14:30 UTC
Nmap scan report for www.abc.com (172.45.6.85)
Host is up (0.0021s latency)
Other addresses for www.abc.com (not scanned) : 4503 : F7b0 : 4293: 703: : 3209 RDNS record for 172.45.6.85: 1ga45s12-in-f1.2d100.net Port State Service
21/tcp filtered ftp
22/tcp filtered ssh
23/tcp filtered telnet
69/tcp open @username.com
80/tcp open http
110/tcp filtered pop
143/tcp filtered imap
443/tcp open https
1010/tcp open www.popup.com
3389/tcp filtered ms-abc-server
Which of the following actions should the server administrator perform on the server?
- A. Close port 3389 and rerun the scan.
- B. Close ports 80 and 443 and rerun the scan.
- C. Close ports 69 and 1010 and rerun the scan.
- D. Close all ports and rerun the scan.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Port 69 is used for TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol), which is an insecure and unencrypted protocol for file transfer. Port 1010 is used for a malicious website that generates pop-up ads. Both of these ports are likely to be exploited by hackers or malware to compromise the server or the web application. The server administrator should close these ports and rerun the scan to verify that they are no longer open12.
References = 1: Why Are Some Network Ports Risky, And How Do You Secure Them? - How-To Geek(https://www.howtogeek.com/devops/why-are-some-ports-risky-and-how-do-you-secure-them/) 2:
Switchport Port Security Explained With Examples -
ComputerNetworkingNotes(https://www.computernetworkingnotes.com/ccna-study-guide/switchport-port-secur
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following testing exercises for disaster recovery is primarily used to discuss incident response strategies for critical systems without affecting production data?
- A. Hot-site visit audit
- B. Backup recovery test
- C. Tabletcp
- D. Lrverail over
Answer: C
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that is primarily used to discuss incident response strategies for critical systems without affecting production data. A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based session where team members meet in an informal, classroom setting to review their roles and responsibilities during an emergency and their responses to a hypothetical scenario. A facilitator guides the participants through the discussion and evaluates the strengths and weaknesses of the preparedness program. A tabletop exercise does not involve any actual deployment of resources or activation of systems12. A backup recovery test (B) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves restoring data from backup media to verify its integrity and availability. A backup recovery test may affect production data if it is not performed on a separate environment. A live failover is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves switching operations from a primary site to a secondary site in case of a failure or disruption. A live failover may affect production data if it is not performed on a simulated environment. A hot-site visit audit (D) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves inspecting and evaluating a hot site, which is a backup location that has fully operational equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. A hot-site visit audit does not involve any discussion of incident response strategies or simulation of scenarios. Reference: 1 https://www.ready.gov/testing-exercises 2 https://www.ready.gov/exercises
NEW QUESTION # 106
A server administrator is currently working on an incident. Which of the following steps should the administrator perform before resolving the issue?
- A. Inform the impacted users.
- B. Determine the probable causes.
- C. Make the changes to the system.
- D. Identify changes to the server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The step that the server administrator should perform before resolving the issue is to determine the probable causes. This step is part of the troubleshooting process that follows a logical and systematic approach to identify and solve problems with servers and applications. The troubleshooting process consists of several steps, such as:
Identify the problem: Gather information from various sources, such as users, logs, or alerts, to understand the symptoms and scope of the problem.
Establish a theory of probable cause: Analyze the information and formulate one or more possible causes of the problem based on evidence or experience.
Test the theory to determine cause: Perform tests or experiments to verify or eliminate each possible cause until the root cause is found.
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution: Design and execute a plan to fix the problem using appropriate tools and techniques.
Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures: Confirm that the problem is resolved and that no other issues arise as a result of the solution. Implement preventive measures to avoid recurrence of the problem or improve performance.
Document findings, actions, and outcomes: Record the details of the problem, its cause, its solution, and its outcome for future reference or knowledge sharing. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 6.0: Troubleshooting, Objective 6.1: Given a scenario involving server hardware issues (e.g., power supply failure), troubleshoot using appropriate tools.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following must a server administrator do to ensure data on the SAN is not compromised if it is leaked?
- A. Encrypt all the network traffic
- B. Encrypt the data that is leaving the SAN
- C. Encrypt the data at rest
- D. Encrypt the host servers
Answer: C
Explanation:
The question states "data on the SAN", so if you encrypt data at rest, this will prevent data compromised.
NEW QUESTION # 108
A company's IDS has identified outbound traffic from one of the web servers coming over port 389 to an outside address. This server only hosts websites. The company's SOC administrator has asked a technician to harden this server. Which of the following would be the BEST way to complete this request?
- A. Move traffic from port 389 to port 637
- B. Disable port 389 on the server
- C. Enable port 389 for web traffic
- D. Move traffic from port 389 to port 443
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best way to complete the request to harden the server is to disable port 389 on the server. Port 389 is the default port used by LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol), which is a protocol that allows access and modification of directory services over a network. LDAP can be used for authentication, authorization, or information retrieval purposes. However, LDAP does not encrypt its data by default, which can expose sensitive information or credentials to attackers who can intercept or modify the network traffic. Therefore, port 389 should be disabled on a web server that only hosts websites and does not need LDAP functionality. Alternatively, port 636 can be used instead of port 389 to enable LDAPS (LDAP over SSL/TLS), which encrypts the data using SSL/TLS certificates.
NEW QUESTION # 109
A systems administrator needs to configure a new server and external storage for a new production application environment. Based on end-user specifications, the new solution needs to adhere to the following basic requirements:
1. The OS must be installed in a separate disk partition. In case of hard drive failure, it cannot be affected.
2. Application data IOPS performance is a must.
3. Data availability is a high priority, even in the case of multiple hard drive failures.
Which of the following are the BEST options to comply with the user requirements? (Choose three.)
- A. Configure RAID 1 for the application data.
- B. Use SSD hard drives for the data application array.
- C. Install the OS on a RAID 1 array.
- D. Configure RAID 5 for the application data.
- E. Use a single JBOD for OS and application data.
- F. Install the OS on a RAID 0 array.
- G. Use SATA hard drives for the data application array.
Answer: B,C,D
NEW QUESTION # 110
Users ate experiencing issues when trying to access resources on multiple servers. The servers are virtual and run on an ESX server. A systems administrator is investigating but is unable to connect to any of the virtual servers. When the administrator connects to the host, a purple screen with while letters appears. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the administrator perform FIRST?
- A. Reinstall the ESX server.
- B. Check the power supplies
- C. Reseat the processors.
- D. Review the log files.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 111
A server administrator mounted a new hard disk on a Linux system with a mount point of /newdisk. It was later determined that users were unable to create directories or files on the new mount point. Which of the following commands would successfully mount the drive with the required parameters?
- A. echo /newdisk >> /etc/fstab
- B. mount -o remount, rw /newdisk
- C. net use /newdisk
- D. mount -a
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference:
https://unix.stackexchange.com/QUESTION NO:s/149399/how-to-remount-as-read-write-a-specific-mount-of-device
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following would MOST likely be part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications?
- A. LDAP
- B. TACACS
- C. MFA
- D. SSO
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.onelogin.com/learn/how-single-sign-on-works
NEW QUESTION # 113
A newly installed server is accessible to local users, but remote users are unable to connect. Which of the following is MOST likely misconfigured?
- A. The IP address
- B. The subnet mask
- C. The default gateway
- D. The VLAN
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is the most likely misconfigured setting because the default gateway is the router that connects the local network to other networks. If the default gateway is incorrect, the server will not be able to communicate with remote users or devices outside its own subnet. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/ipconfig
NEW QUESTION # 114
A technician is installing a variety of servers in a rack. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the technician to take while loading the rack?
- A. Leave 1U of space between each server
- B. Place a UPS at the top of the rack
- C. Alternate the direction of the airflow
- D. Install the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 115
A systems administrator deployed a new web proxy server onto the network. The proxy server has two interfaces: the first is connected to an internal corporate firewall, and the second is connected to an internet-facing firewall. Many users at the company are reporting they are unable to access the Internet since the new proxy was introduced. Analyze the network diagram and the proxy server's host routing table to resolve the Internet connectivity issues.
INSTRUCTIONS
Perform the following steps:
1. Click on the proxy server to display its routing table.
2. Modify the appropriate route entries to resolve the Internet connectivity issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 116
A systems administrator is setting up a server farm for a new company. The company has a public range of IP addresses and uses the addresses internally. Which of the following IP addresses best fits this scenario?
- A. 192.168.7.1
- B. 127.0.0.1
- C. 10.3.7.27
- D. 216,176,128.10
Answer: D
Explanation:
The IP address that best fits this scenario is 216.176.128.10. This is a public IP address that belongs to a range of addresses that are assigned and registered by an Internet service provider (ISP) and can be accessed from anywhere on the Internet. The company has a public range of IP addresses and uses them internally, which means that they do not use private IP addresses or network address translation (NAT) to communicate within their network.
NEW QUESTION # 117
An organization implements split encryption keys for sensitive files. Which of the following types of risks does this mitigate?
- A. Hardware failure
- B. Insider threat
- C. Data corruption
- D. Marware
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An insider threat is a type of risk that can be mitigated by implementing split encryption keys for sensitive files. An insider threat is a malicious actor who has authorized access to an organization's system or data and uses it for unauthorized or harmful purposes. An insider threat can cause data breaches, sabotage, fraud, theft, espionage, or other damages to the organization. Split encryption keys are a method of encrypting data using multiple keys that are stored separately and require collaboration to decrypt. Split encryption keys can prevent an insider threat from accessing or compromising sensitive data without being detected by another authorized party who holds another key. Hardware failure is a type of risk that involves physical damage or malfunction of hardware components such as hard drives, memory modules, power supplies, or fans. Hardware failure can cause data loss, system downtime, performance issues, or other problems for the organization. Hardware failure cannot be mitigated by split encryption keys, but by backup, redundancy, monitoring, and maintenance measures.
NEW QUESTION # 118
An administrator is only able to log on to a server with a local account. The server has been successfully joined to the domain and can ping other servers by IP address. Which of the following locally defined settings is MOST likely misconfigured?
- A. WINS
- B. DHCP
- C. DNS
- D. TCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is the most likely misconfigured setting because DNS is the service that resolves hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. If the DNS server is incorrect or unreachable, the administrator will not be able to log on to the server with a domain account because the server will not be able to authenticate with the domain controller. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/troubleshoot/windows-server/networking/dns-troubleshooting
NEW QUESTION # 119
An administrator is configuring a server that will host a high-performance financial application. Which of the following disk types will serve this purpose?
- A. SATA drive with 15000rpm
- B. SAS SSD
- C. SAS drive with 10000rpm
- D. SATA SSD
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best disk type for a high-performance financial application is a SAS SSD. A SAS SSD (Serial Attached SCSI Solid State Drive) is a type of storage device that uses flash memory chips to store data and has a SAS interface to connect to a server or a storage array. A SAS SSD offers high speed, low latency, high reliability, and high durability compared to other types of disks, such as SATA SSDs, SAS HDDs, or SATA HDDs. A SAS SSD can handle high I/O workloads and deliver consistent performance for applications that require fast data access and processing.
NEW QUESTION # 120
A server administrator needs to deploy five VMs, all of which must have the same type of configuration. Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to perform this task?
- A. Use a physical host.
- B. Snapshot a VM.
- C. Perform a P2V conversion.
- D. Use a VM template.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Deploying a virtual machine from a template creates a virtual machine that is a copy of the template. The new virtual machine has the virtual hardware, installed software, and other properties that are configured for the template.
Reference:
The most efficient way to perform the task of deploying five VMs with the same type of configuration is to use a VM template. A template is a preconfigured virtual machine image that contains an operating system, applications, settings, and other components. A template can be used to create multiple identical or customized VMs quickly and easily, without having to install and configure each VM from scratch. A template can save time and ensure consistency across VMs.
NEW QUESTION # 121
A technician is attempting to reboot a remote physical Linux server. However, attempts to command a shutdown -----now result in the loss of the SSH connection. The server still responds to pings. Which of the following should the technician use to command a remote shutdown?
- A. A crash cart
- B. virtual serial console
- C. A KVM
- D. An IDRAC
Answer: D
Explanation:
An IDRAC (Integrated Dell Remote Access Controller) is a tool that can be used to command a remote shutdown of a physical Linux server. An IDRAC is a hardware device that provides out-of-band management for Dell servers. It allows the technician to access the server's console, power cycle, reboot, or shut down the server remotely using a web interface or a command-line interface. An IDRAC does not depend on the operating system or network connectivity of the server. A virtual serial console is a tool that can be used to access a remote virtual machine's console using a serial port connection. A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch is a device that allows the technician to switch between different computer sources using the same keyboard, monitor, and mouse. A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a keyboard, monitor, mouse, and other tools that can be connected to a physical server for troubleshooting purposes. References:
https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000131486/understanding-the-idrac
https://www.howtogeek.com/799968/what-is-a-kvm-switch/
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1032/business-impact-analysis-bia
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following is used for fail over, providing access to all the services currently in use by an organization without having to physically move any servers or employees?
- A. An emergency operations center
- B. A cold site
- C. A warm site
- D. The cloud
Answer: D
Explanation:
The solution that is used for failover, providing access to all the services currently in use by an organization without having to physically move any servers or employees, is the cloud. The cloud is a term that refers to a network of remote servers that are hosted on the Internet and provide various services, such as storage, computing, networking, and applications. The cloud can be used for failover, which is a backup operation that automatically switches to a standby system or service in case of a failure or disruption of the primary system or service. By using the cloud for failover, an organization can ensure continuous availability and accessibility of its services without requiring any physical relocation or intervention.
NEW QUESTION # 123
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